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Posted (edited)

The drug in question is Prednisolone.

 

Prednisolone is a synthetic glucocorticoid, a derivative of cortisol, which is used to treat a variety of inflammatory and auto-immune conditions. It is the active metabolite of the drug prednisone and is used especially in patients with hepatic failure, as these individuals are unable to metabolise prednisone into prednisolone.

 

 

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prednisolone

Edited by GaryvdM
Posted

Aye aye aye.. another day another atricle.. soon Froome will be applying for a TUE for anti depressants.

 

 

 

 

Posted

I think this says it all. Def still for his asthma.

 

Uses <collapse-section>

 

Prednisolone is a corticosteroid drug with predominant glucocorticoid and low mineralocorticoid activity, making it useful for the treatment of a wide range of inflammatory and auto-immune conditions[2] such as asthma,[3] uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, pericarditis, temporal arteritis and Crohn's disease, Bell's palsy, multiple sclerosis,[4] cluster headaches, vasculitis, acute lymphoblastic leukemia and autoimmune hepatitis,[5] systemic lupus erythematosus, Kawasaki disease[6] and dermatomyositis. It is also used for treatment of sarcoidosis, though the mechanism is unknown.

Posted

I think this says it all. Def still for his asthma.

 

According to the article, it was for the treatment of his respiratory infection. The question is, if the infection is so bad that he needs a band substance, shouldn't he be sitting it out.

Posted

If the medication allowed him to ride, then why should he have to sit out when he was granted a TUE?

 

Because it is a performance enhancing drug that would give him a unfair advantage?

 

I don't know for sure. That's why I'm asking these questions.

 

There is a conflicting statements in the media. One article I read said:

 

The rules state that taking steroids by mouth is prohibited during competition and that if a cyclist displays a condition requiring such a treatment, he is clearly not fit to take part

 

But the UCI claims that they have done nothing wrong.

 

Can anybody familiar with the rules point us to the rule mentioned above?

Posted

 

Because it is a performance enhancing drug that would give him a unfair advantage?

 

I don't know for sure. That's why I'm asking these questions.

 

There is a conflicting statements in the media. One article I read said:

 

 

 

But the UCI claims that they have done nothing wrong.

 

Can anybody familiar with the rules point us to the rule mentioned above?

I think that if it truly would have given him an unfair advantage he wouldn't have been given a TUE for it.

 

As for the administration by mouth thing, I can't speak to that, but how the hell else are you supposed to administer it? Suppository? Injection?

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